arm pain

Practice targeted AMC-style multiple-choice questions on arm pain.

A 65-year-old man with a Popeye deformity has persistent pain and weakness despite conservative management. What is the next step?

A. Refer for surgical repair.

B. Observe for 6 months.

C. Order an MRI.

D. Start physical therapy.

E. Prescribe NSAIDs.

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A 60-year-old man with a Popeye deformity has no pain but reports mild weakness in supination. What is the most appropriate management?

A. Surgical repair

B. NSAIDs

C. Corticosteroid injection

D. Observation

E. Physical therapy

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A 45-year-old weightlifter presents with sudden pain and a bulge in his arm after lifting a heavy weight. On examination, there is a Popeye deformity. What is the most likely mechanism of injury?

A. Traumatic rupture of the biceps tendon.

B. Degenerative tear

C. Inflammatory tendinitis

D. Repetitive overhead activity

E. Nerve compression

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A 50-year-old man presents with a deformity of his right arm. On examination, there is a bulge in the mid-arm, and the shoulder appears flattened. He reports weakness when flexing his elbow. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Rupture of the long head of the biceps tendon.

B. Acromioclavicular joint injury

C. Glenohumeral arthritis

D. Anterior shoulder dislocation

E. Rotator cuff tear

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arm pain

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